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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 04:44

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Did you become a cuckold for your wife?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Since the rise of feminism, the dating market has shifted to the disadvantage of men and that is causing this incel phenomenon. Why do women not understand how lonely the majority of men are?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

How can one translate "You're welcome" from English to French using formal language? Are there any other ways to say this phrase in a more polite manner?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.